To “regulate” Commerce means more than to “make it regular”

by Rob Natelson

From time to time I punch holes in “progressive” myths about the Constitution and the American Founding. But conservatives and libertarians have their own myths as well.

One is that congressional authority under the Commerce Clause (I-8-3) to “regulate Commerce among the several States” permits Congress only to facilitate trade among the States—i.e., that “to regulate” means only “to make regular.” The claim is that the Commerce Clause does not empower Congress to burden or obstruct commerce—and therefore Congress has no power to ban trade in products such as obscenity, marijuana, or goods made with child labor.

This argument, like so many other constitutional claims, seems to have arisen among partisans in the 19th century, but it remains popular among some libertarians today. Its promoters observe that a major reason for the Interstate Commerce Clause was to enable Congress to smooth out barriers to trade that some states had erected against other states.

Unfortunately for us free traders, the argument is false. Congress’s power to “regulate Commerce . . . among the several States” is far wider than merely authority to make trade regular. Congress also may obstruct trade, or even ban it.

Where’s the proof?

Well, first, let’s examine Founding-Era English dictionaries. To my knowledge, not one limits its definition of “regulate” to “make regular.” In fact, of the 18 Founding-Era legal and lay dictionaries I’ve examined (counting multiple editions of the same publication as a single dictionary), NONE even includes the definition “make regular.”  Instead, definitions of “to regulate” generally include phrases such as “to direct,” “to adjust,” “to govern,” and “to determine or decide.”

Second, when you interpret a phrase in the Constitution, you have to consider not only its immediate purpose, but how people generally understood it. The phrase“regulate Commerce” is a good example. All throughout the Founding Era, Americans used those words mostly to refer to government restrictions on commerce, such as trade bans, price regulation, and prohibitory tariffs. For example, before the Revolution American colonial writers resisting Parliament’s efforts to tax them nevertheless accepted British restrictions on trade as legitimate efforts to “regulate” the trade of the empire.

Third, in the Commerce Clause the verb “regulate” has three objects, not just one: interstate, foreign, and Indian commerce. Under Founding-Era (as well as modern) rules of interpretation you should read “regulate” the same way for all three.

But a major reason for giving Congress authority to regulate foreign commerce was to enable Congress to keep out foreign goods. The idea was to encourage American manufactures and rectify an unfavorable balance of trade. And a major reason for giving Congress power to regulate the Indian trade was allow Congress to block or limit sale of certain goods to the Natives, specifically liquor and firearms.

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So even though the Founders thought that an immediate use of the Commerce Clause would be to free up interstate trade, the Founders also gave Congress authority to obstruct it. This authority included power to burden or ban trade in selected items or from selected sources. And Congress could use that power for any reason not otherwise prohibited by the Constitution. Hence, even though the Constitution left direct governance over subjects like obscenity and marijuana to the states, the document gave Congress authority indirect power to affect such items by preventing them from crossing jurisdictional lines.

“Progressives” and their allies on the Supreme Court have interpreted congressional authority far too broadly. But this does not justify the rest of us committing the opposite error.

In private life, Rob Natelson is a long-time conservative/free market activist, but professionally he is a constitutional scholar whose meticulous studies of the Constitution’s original meaning have been published or cited by many top law journals. (See: www.umt.edu/law/faculty/natelson.htm.) Most recently, he co-authored The Origins of the Necessary and Proper Clause (Cambridge University Press) and The Original Constitution (Tenth Amendment Center). After a quarter of a century as Professor of Law at the University of Montana, he recently retired to work full time at Colorado’s Independence Institute.

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18 Responses to To “regulate” Commerce means more than to “make it regular”

  1. baniszewski December 27, 2011 at 12:05 pm #

    @RonPaul_2012 lets do it….

  2. WilliamSchooler December 27, 2011 at 3:19 pm #

    Rob, I find many of these abuses to be so true and interpretation is such a big assumption of so many things today. There used to be a time when a public was aloud to show what is meant by how it works and what results it brings into existence. Today this is not the case, it always seem like it has to be some stated case for all to assume.

    When I look at commerce from a life perspective it becomes an act of ideas exchanged for other ideas whether in states or countries would make no difference. I could understand a mediation of dispute between states by one attempting to manipulate some other by restrictions lets say. Restricting something coming in versus what is allowed to go out. Some times these arguments get way over analyzed and what I mean is Life likes to generate ideas, we like to show them off and we like to see if they are useful. Not sure why we would restrict any of this unless it is killing people then it makes sense. But today we have products that kill people and they flow like water, like fluoride, legalized drugs, chemicals. Kind of makes me wonder about regulator’s.

    Since the constitution is based upon the principal liberty to restrict Government from restricting what life does and commerce is definitely one of these acts and how extensive does it have to be before it becomes totally obscure and unworkable?

  3. purple_persuader December 27, 2011 at 4:18 pm #

    While I generally find myself intellectually edified by Mr. Natelsons scholarship and intellect, and consider him one of the top scholars on the USC, if not the best, I find his argument here rather flawed.

    He states above that the prohibitive power was to be used to benefit the states by equalizing conditions (rectify an unfavorable balance of trade) with other nations, but then infers that any product could be prohibited. Following their fiduciary nature as being confined to reasonable governance, how then could any product be prohibited if it is not to benefit commerce? If the purpose then becomes to police personal conduct it is clearly a violation of the tenth amendment. If there is no trade imbalance being corrected how could it then be claimed that both the 9th and 10th amendments may be overridden and the congress assume power of people’s choice of consumption or whatnot?

  4. Bob Greenslade December 27, 2011 at 7:09 pm #

    If Congress has the power to ban commerce between the several States, then it has the power to cut off a State from the importation of food and starve its people into submission. Such a power would allow the federal government to turn a State into an economic wasteland.

    During the debates in the Federal [Constitutional] Convention on this provision, Oliver Ellsworth stated:

    “The power of regulating trade between the States will protect them against each other”

    James Madison reiterated this point in the Convention as follows:

    “[P]erhaps the best guard against an abuse of the power of the States on this subject, was the right in the General Government to regulate trade between State and State.”

    How would the power to ban commerce protect the States from each other?

  5. TimReeves December 27, 2011 at 7:19 pm #

    If the Constitution already gives Congress the authority to outlaw substances, what was the purpose of the prohibition amendment? this would seem to challenge the argument that it is legal to ban certain items or substances from being possessed. Let alone that the word “commerce” was not the all encompassing subject that would include possession of certain substances then there is Federalist 41 where Madisons arguments as to the real purpose does not hint in any way at the broadness that Rob seems to imply.

    • Bob Greenslade December 27, 2011 at 8:38 pm #

      @TimReeves

      Your point is right on and is substantiated by the 13th Amendment passed in 1865 (banning slavery), the 18th Amendment passed in 1919 (banning intoxicating liquors), and the 21st Amendment passed in 1933 (repealing the ban on intoxicating liquors). All of these amendments involved commerce, yet Congress realized that it took a constitutional amendment before it had the power to impose a ban or lift a ban.

  6. Cheryl Tracy December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    Rick Perry strongly supports the 10th Amendment!

  7. Dan Donovan December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    only when it does not interfere with his talibanisation of the US Cheryl.

  8. Kimberly Boldt December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    To put it more simply, Congress only has to power to keep interstate commerce “regular”. The reason for this, is during that time, some states were charging tariffs on goods coming in from another state, or actually blocking movement of goods into their states. So in order to prevent trade wars between states, and to keep goods moving freely through the states, Congress was given to power to act as a referee to settle disputes between the states regarding trade and commerce.

  9. Ronald Frank December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    that was in my humble opinion meant to only serve to protect the property of one citizen in one state from being intercepted en-route to its destination in another state just as the Navy is to protect the Shipping of goods to other Nations and the protecting of American Citizens on American Cruse Ships et. al.

  10. Scott Alan Harper December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    Whatever it means it doesn’t come close to the meaning our Supreme Court has twisted it into in the last 70 years.

  11. James Dillman December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    Disagree! The Constitution itself uses the words regulate, rules, govern, laws, separately and for different reasons. If the intent to govern or control commerce it would say Govern, or Control–

    What does the phrase “well regulated militia” mean? — It means a well facilitated militia. Not a militia tightly controlled by the Federal Government, but simply well armed, well trained, and very capable. Well facilitated.

    Further, it’s not very likely the Commerce Clause could be honestly construed to mean “Congress could use that power for any reason not otherwise prohibited by the Constitution” since for general purposes the Constitution is designed to limit the power of the Federal Government and reserve rights and powers to the states and to the people. — This can be read in the letter from Jefferson to Washington concerning the Central Bank, where such a power is discussed only in the case of the survival of the Federal government, ie essential to the maintenance of the Federal Government.

    Additionally, there is no reason whatsoever for the Federal Government to control or manipulate or govern commerce within a state, and therefore would have little reason to control, manipulate, or govern commerce between the states, except as facilitator.

  12. Scott O. Smith December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    “To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes” (Art I Sec 8).

    It seems logical and reasonable to me that “among the several States” refers to maintaining a fair and equitable trade system between but not within the several states.

  13. Peter Fithian December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    This is why I’m a Libertarian. Conservatives just don’t want to give up that federal power to regulate morality…

  14. Bilovisso Sanspoul December 28, 2011 at 3:34 pm #

    Abolish the clause, which has been abused to no end as an excuse for totalitarian government.

  15. dissentingj January 4, 2012 at 6:28 pm #

    @TenthAmendment Only Justice Thomas supports that narrow view of commerce. He is the only justice in Supreme Court history to do so.

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  2. Half Way There | Tenth Amendment Center - June 2, 2013

    [...] While the fact that Friedman thinks in terms of limiting federal power makes me smile, his take on the meaning of regulate has no basis in founding era thought. Regulation does, in fact, include the power to prohibit, as Natelson pointed out in an article published by the Tenth Amendment Center. [...]